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Re: Does That Mean...?


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Posted by: Don Teller (65.119.31.100) on December 30, 2002 at 16:16:39

In Reply to: Does That Mean...? posted by Christian B. on December 30, 2002 at 15:27:35:

They have to prove sexual intent to have indecent exposure re the california supreme court. So get a clue and know more about what you speak.

California Supreme Court
decision "In re Smith"
In re Smith (1972) 7 C3d 362, 102 Cal Rptr 335, 497 P2d 807 (excerpts):
"A person does not expose his private parts 'lewdly' within the meaning of Penal Code Section 314, condemning indecent exposure, unless his conduct is sexually motivated. Accordingly, a conviction of that offense requires proof beyond a reasonable doubt that the actor not only meant to expose himself, but intended by his conduct to direct public attention to his genitals for purposes of sexual arousal, gratification, or affront.

: Does that mean you'll cover the lawyer bills, fines, bail, in the event that the police don't react the way you "expect" them to?

: You're an arrogant idiot. Any model who chooses to work with you... deserves what she gets.

: christian





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